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  • hebrew - Why does the KJV say JAH in Psalm 68:4? - Biblical . . .
    I would like to avoid convoluted explanations and keep this question simple if possible - what is the reasoning or explanation behind the KJV translating the name of God as Jah in Psalm 68:4? Is the manuscript being used here in the KJV different to the manuscripts being used in other translations? And why only in this one verse?
  • If יהּ is a distinct name, can אהיה be parsed both as א ה יה, I-the-JAH . . .
    Others like Young's understand a distinction and translate each differently: Jehovah and Jah If יהּ is a distinct name, can אהיה be parsed both as א ה יה, I-the-JAH and I AM, א היה?
  • translation philosophy - Alleluya Hallelujah understanding . . .
    In any case, this word originally is a combination of two transliterated Hebrew words, Hallel and Jah, which when translated into Greek or English, mean Praise the LORD, or Praise ye the LORD Note that the word for "lord" is always to be spelled with capital letters denoting that it is a translation of YHWH, the sacred name of God
  • Is there theological significance in the word Allelujah only . . .
    Everyone, including Gentiles saying ἁλληλουϊά would be speaking Greek yet saying the Hebrew equivalent of hālal-yâ, Praise Jah In effect, as the final word in Psalms says, Let all breath praise the Lord
  • In Matthew 6:9, what name is Jesus referring to?
    This comes from a Hebrew expression that literally means “Praise Jah ” “Jah” is a contraction of the name Jehovah Many names used in the Christian Greek Scriptures were derived from the divine name In fact, reference works explain that Jesus’ own name means “Jehovah Is Salvation ”
  • Does Song of Songs 8:6 contain a reference to YHWH?
    Jah is in 8:6 In this form often in poetry Therefore, the two possible translations of 8:6 is love is a flame of Yahweh Love is flame above all other flames Either would work but I lean to flame "Jah" to be a short form of YHWH Usually, your question comes from someone arguing that the Song shouldn't even be in the Bible because God isn't mentioned God doesn't need to be mentioned in
  • greek - Should Jehovah or Yahweh be the English text of the New . . .
    To make a point think on this, "HALLELUJAH (hal-e-lu'ya; Heb hallelu-ya; "praise ye Jah," i e , Jehovah; Gk allelouia) Evidently a common form of adoration and thanks-giving in Jewish worship, as appears from its frequent employment at the beginning and close of many psalms (See Pss 106,111-13,117,135)
  • Was Baal (Lord) also commonly used in forming a Compound-Name for the . . .
    Note: I do admit that "ba'al" means the same thing as the English word "lord " That it was applied to Israel's God is indicated in Hosea's famous saying: 'On that day—oracle of the Lord— You shall call me “My husband,” and you shall never again call me “My baal "' (Hosea 2:16) In modern times, no less a figure than the founder of Hasidism styled himself the "Ba'al Shem Tov" (Master
  • (Esther 4:16 KJV) And so will I go in unto the king, which is not . . .
    The unjust judge in Luke 18:1-6 is a great parallel, too, which is very similar to Esther and is given by Jesus as a parallel: "5Yet because this widow troubleth me, I will avenge her, lest by her continual coming she weary me 6And the Lord said, Hear what the unjust judge saith 7And shall not God avenge his own elect, which cry day and night unto him, though he bear long with them? 8I tell
  • Is Isaiah 64:6s filthy rags taken out of context?
    I would hesitate to treat Isaiah 64:6 as direct support for "justification by faith alone," especially since it is never cited in the New Testament However, I agree with the later statement, that "righteous acts of man are, ultimately, imperfect, and man cannot be justified by his own strength, powers and abilities " It is important to note that Isaiah speaks of righteous acts, corresponding





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